OmniscientOnus
Blue Mage
Quoting the Bible to prove a point is an asinine thing to do outside of a purely Christian medium. With very few exceptions each verse can be taken differently by different people.
For example:
Sephiroth, here, is interpreting that passage to mean that humans go to heaven and animals go to hell. Sure we can say that since the Bible clearly (I use this term loosely) states that humans can go to either heaven or hell, we can safely assume that this is not what this passage is trying to say. But, then we have to ask: "What does it mean?"
At a glance, I, myself, would be lead to believe that it is posing a question basically saying "Does anyone really know the spirit of man and beast?" The "goeth upward" and "goeth downward" being implied knowledge restated for clarity, affect, or so forth (dependent on what, exactly, the asker's topic and purpose for conveying the message would be).
Not to put a hex on quoting the Bible, I just think that in a secular forum it can not be rightfully used as a factual reference book.
...but then again, this is essentially a religion based question. Not just Christian based, but, I suppose I can see quoting the Bible to help answer a religious based question could be considered a viable source of information, even in a secular forum. (Not to say that the forum excludes religious people, just that the forum itself does not boast any particular religion or lack thereof).
I personally believe that, if you wish to quote the Bible as a form of proof to a statement, perhaps a few different quotes from multiple books with surrounding text to keep everything in proper context, would be the only appropriate way to do so. That way you take some of the interpretation based on wording out of the equation.
For example:
Why does it say the spirit of man goes up and the spirit of animals go down? Does that somehow say that people go to heaven and animals go to hell?
Sephiroth, here, is interpreting that passage to mean that humans go to heaven and animals go to hell. Sure we can say that since the Bible clearly (I use this term loosely) states that humans can go to either heaven or hell, we can safely assume that this is not what this passage is trying to say. But, then we have to ask: "What does it mean?"
At a glance, I, myself, would be lead to believe that it is posing a question basically saying "Does anyone really know the spirit of man and beast?" The "goeth upward" and "goeth downward" being implied knowledge restated for clarity, affect, or so forth (dependent on what, exactly, the asker's topic and purpose for conveying the message would be).
Not to put a hex on quoting the Bible, I just think that in a secular forum it can not be rightfully used as a factual reference book.
...but then again, this is essentially a religion based question. Not just Christian based, but, I suppose I can see quoting the Bible to help answer a religious based question could be considered a viable source of information, even in a secular forum. (Not to say that the forum excludes religious people, just that the forum itself does not boast any particular religion or lack thereof).
I personally believe that, if you wish to quote the Bible as a form of proof to a statement, perhaps a few different quotes from multiple books with surrounding text to keep everything in proper context, would be the only appropriate way to do so. That way you take some of the interpretation based on wording out of the equation.